There’s no shortage of skeptical Atheists who ask this question. Essentially the complaint/question is that there aren’t enough ‘unbiased’ sources confirming the miracles of Jesus.
This complaint has problems of it’s own. Not the least of which that any document would likely be considered bias. This means then that there doesn’t exist by definition any non-biased accounts for Jesus’ life and miracles. If any account features what He taught and what He did, it pretty much counts as a biased text. I don’t think it’s a stretch to assume that if there were a non-biased work with as much detail as the Gospel accounts include, it would be considered a biased text.
Therefore I have to ask the skeptical Atheist this: Since it seems that skeptical Atheists making the above complaint would discount any ancient reference which corroborated the the Gospel accounts of Jesus miracles as being biased and mythical. If this is true what exactly is the point of asking? And if it’s not true that you’d dismiss corroborative documentation, why aren’t the gospel accounts enough?